How a.b= ∑a1b1

any proof else how to do it by intuition?
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17 Replies
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Opt
Opt4w ago
That's $\sum{i} a{i}b_{i}$
TeXit
TeXit4w ago
Opt
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Opt
Opt4w ago
Not a1b1
Say_miracle_shadow
but ∑a1b1 =a1b1+a2b2+... btw how it comes?
Nimboi
Nimboi4w ago
in what context is this show the rest of the question/screenshot/wtv
Say_miracle_shadow
it was basically a proof for cauchy schwarz inequality
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SirLancelotDuLac
What exactly is the doubt? The proof is something like this let $\vec{a}=x \hat{i}+ y \hat{j}+ z \hat{k}$ and $\vec{b}= a \hat{i}+ b \hat{j}+c \hat{k}$, now $\vec{a}.\vec{b} \leq \abs{a}\abs{b}$, square both sides and replace $\vec{a}.\vec{b}$ by $ax+by+cz$
TeXit
TeXit4w ago
SirLancelotDuLac
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SirLancelotDuLac
The $\sum{a{i} \cdot b{i}}$ is basically the dot product and nothing else.
TeXit
TeXit4w ago
SirLancelotDuLac
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Opt
Opt4w ago
Oh, wait, are you asking why it's product of corresponding terms? That's the definition of the dot product. $\vec{a}\cdot\vec{b} \equiv \sum{1 \leq i,j\leq n}a{i}\hat{e{i}} \cdot b{j}\hat{e{j}}$, where $\vec{a}=\sum{i}^{n}a{i}\hat{e{i}}$ and $\vec{b}=\sum{j}^{n}a{j}\hat{e{j}}$ However, since we define $\hat{e{i}}\cdot \hat{e{j}} \equiv 0 \forall i \neq j, and \hat{e{i}}\cdot \hat{e{j}} \equiv 1 \forall i equal to j, $ $\vec{a}\cdot\vec{b} \equiv \sum{1 \leq i \leq n}a{i}b{i}$
TeXit
TeXit4w ago
Opt
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BlindSniper (BS)
multiplication is repeated addition ahh answer
Say_miracle_shadow
oh yeah i get it, thanks guys +solved @SirLancelotDuLac @Opt @BlindSniper (BS)
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