Indef integration doubt
Why can't we use the sim inverse formula here as we can put e^x as t and 1 can be written as 1^2
7 Replies
@Apu
Note for OP
+solved @user1 @user2... to close the thread when your doubt is solved. Mention the users who helped you solve the doubt. This will be added to their stats.If you substitute $e^{x}=t$ then you have to convert dx into dt as $e^{x}dx=dt\rightarrow dx=\frac{1}{t}dt$ otherwise you cant integrate as 't' cant be integrated wrt dx so different method is used
PING ME FOR CALCULAS PROBLEMS
Yeah thanks got it
Awesome! Can you close it out please?
How do we close it