22 Replies
@trin
@Gyro Gearloose
Note for OP
+solved @user1 @user2... to close the thread when your doubt is solved. Mention the users who helped you solve the doubt. This will be added to their stats.why is discplacement in 3rd second 0 and why do we need to multiply X with 2 to find distance
@Gogeta the formula used here is Snth = u + a/2(2n-1) where n here is the time, it gives you the displacement travelled in that second only. so while u use this formula u will see disp = 0.
so everytime i use this formula i shud know ki displacement is 0 na ?
I dont get you..
everytime i use the Snth formula is displacement 0
nope
here accelaration is minus
yep
so the particle moves backwards, so the displacementtravelled front when it goes opposite direction it gets subtracted hence 0 ?
i dont get what hes sayin
ill explain wait
🫡
alr trin will tc
its a video sorry i shud have told u
ahh ok ok np bhai
bhai
basically in the video he said, disp bw 2 and 3 second is zero because its going and coming back
so displacement is 0
yeah
whyd he multiply distance w 2
always displacement is 0 because between 2 seconds the particle is travelling back and forth
where?
i wish i could send the pic but i gotta open a new post again
um just dm
ok