18 Replies
@Apu
Note for OP
+solved @user to close the thread when your doubt is solved. Mention the user who helped you solve the doubt. This will be added to their stats.abhi jee ka exam hai, wait a couple of days hah for people to respond xD
Split the 1 into cos^2 alpha +sin^2 alpha or cos^2 theta_r and sin^2 theta_r
depending on whichever one helps you most
If you need more help you could convert this into an integral using 2pir/n
@Fermat's Last Theorem
i think you can do this by complex
Show work
I dont get this step
i wrote 1=cos^2(theta_r)+sin^2(theta_r)
limit n does not tend to infinity so ig we cant do this
They haven't specified n so that might lead to a simpler approach
(just an observation, haven't tried it in depth)
If anything you could create an inequality and use the sandwich theorem, that's another possible idea
Comrade Rock Astley
Now
For the limits 0 and n-1 let the sum be S-
For the limits 1 and n let the sum be S+
those represent the upper and lower Riemann sums of the integral when 2pi r/n = x and 2pi /n = dx
and n tends to infinity
missed the summation symbol, my bad
Oh
Apparently I solved it by complex numbers
Nice
YE KYA HAI
+solved @Comrade Rock Astley
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